Is the difference in communication styles ingrained into our heads at birth, or does it have to do with the social aspects of modern-day society? While this topic has been argued till the cows come home, both arguments make a compelling case. Brenda argues that ancient social factors are to blame. As the history of the human goes back to the caveman ages, men have communicated differently than women, and it's because of this tradition and social factors that they still do so today. This, however is contrary to what Louann believes, in that men and women are born with differences.
Findings have shown that both men and women have identical brains at birth, and this makes sense as all babies start off as female. A random increase in testosterone causes the communication cells of the brain to shrink, while the aggression and sex cells expand, turning the baby into a boy. This almost clearly states the men and women have different brains from the start. It's the same reason men are more apt at math and sciences; because their brain developed toward that direction before birth. As compelling as this is, I don't believe it's the main reason of difference in communication styles.
As young boys and girls turn into young men and women, their bodies start producing hormones. These hormones are enough to cause drastic mood swings and reactions to things that usually wouldn't cause a stir. While both sexes get these, women respond more drastically to different hormones, and thus respond differently to outside social factors. Society accepts the fact that this is "normal" and has already changed the way women are allowed to communicate.
Overall, there's some truth to both theories. Men and women are born with diffences in brains, but society and social media have also changed expectations of how both sexes are supposed to react toward one another. There will never really be a way to test this, unless an actual experiment was done that involved a man and a woman with no other outside interaction for the duration of there lives.
Questions:
1) How do hormones have an affect on each sex?
2) Is there really a way to prove either of the theories?
I dont think there is a way to determine which theory is correct. I believe that both are major factors in determing a communication style although I believe this differences might be more prevelant on an individual basis influincing a single person's communication style.
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